I accept what you're saying- I'm not saying you're wrong per se, just that you could make an argument that the practices which I am talking about could be considered anti-competitive too. to go through the specific points, to point out more what I mean:
"A single manufacturer deciding that they would only supply retailers who did not discount the recommended retail price is not collusion between the retailer and the manufacture: it is a unilateral decision made by the manufacturer."
that is a good point. However, you could probably argue that it's semantics- in effect, it's preventing/minimising competition between independent retailers for that one product/range of products.
"Furthermore this in not anti-competitive behaviour. If the product is not priced competitively then another manufacturer's product will get the sale. That's how competition works in a free market (in so far as there is anything approaching a free market). Certainly competition in the MI is pretty fierce. How many distortion pedals are there on the market?"
Of course. But again, if you ask me, it's fostering anti-competitive practices among supposedly independent retailers. Whether directly or indirectly, the end result is the same. Plus if every manufacturer indulges in that kind of price maintenance, competition (between retailers) is still severely restricted. Even if it's not collusion among independent manufacturers.
I guess, my problem is that you're considering the retailers as different to the manufacturers. I don't.
"(i)If you follow your argument to its logical conclusion, then why should the manufacturer determine the trade price? (ii)Furthermore, should all manufacturer be forced to sell to all retailers rather than use a restricted number of dealers, as this might too be deemed anti-competitive? (iii) And surely predatory pricing should be legal."
(i) As i said, and as you've suggested, even if you make price maintenance illegal, the manufacturer can influence the RRP greatly by where it sets the trade price. I'm not sure how to fix that, but I guess at least it makes them be a little less open about it? Not sure. Just tacitly accepting it doesn't seem right, though (at least if you agree with me).
(ii) in a perfect world, probably, and assuming the manufacturer doesn't have a good reason not to want to deal with a specific shop (if the shop is rubbish at customer service, for example). But not wanting more than one dealer per region is, again, anti-competitive, if you ask me.
(iii) again, I disagree. I guess I make a distinction between "fair" competition (i.e. you're just better or cheaper at something) and "unfair" (cartels and similar stuff, undercutting an opponent on his/her one product to drive him/her out of business, while you can prop up your own with the profits on another line of products, etc.).
"What I think you are objecting to is the idea that you are prevented from getting a better deal on an item due to some dodgy restrictive practice by retailers colluding with manufacturers."
Of course, exactly.
"I had an very interesting argument with someone about this who was saying how great the free market is, but objected that retailers were charging well over the recommended retail price for some X-BOX type item (don't know much about these) when there was a shortage coming up to Christmas, so I suppose it works both ways....."
Yeah, it does go both ways. I've never said how great the free market is, though. I'm no libertarian (in terms of economics, anyway).
Anyway, I'm not trying to cause a fight or anything, I just enjoy debate. I reckon (correct me if I'm wrong) my entire argument boils down to this:
If a manufacturer is able to set (not suggest) a minimum price, how is that not anti-competitive when a major part of the competition between retailers is that based on price?
Just as another thing on a slight tangent- how do you feel about one manufacturer refusing to sell to a retailer if the retailer stocks a competitor's products?